The most number of pitches ONE pitcher can throw to ONE batter in one at-bat with no foul balls and still strike him out?

The most number of pitches ONE pitcher can throw to ONE batter in one at-bat with no foul balls and still strike him out?
I'd like to say 6 (3 balls, 3 strikes), but it's probably a trick question. Nevertheless, I'll make 6 my final answer.
Here's another good trivia question, that I think has been asked already, but I really like...
What's the least number of pitches one pitcher can throw in a standard (9-inning) game (without being pulled for or coming in as relief)?
"You aint my b!tch, n!gga! Buy your own damn fries!" -- Barack Obama

Originally posted by penguin4
I'd like to say 6 (3 balls, 3 strikes), but it's probably a trick question. Nevertheless, I'll make 6 my final answer.
Here's another good trivia question, that I think has been asked already, but I really like...
What's the least number of pitches one pitcher can throw in a standard (9-inning) game (without being pulled for or coming in as relief)?
wouldn't it be 24?
Couldn't be 24. Would be 25.Originally posted by jiffyjeff
wouldn't it be 24?
If it was 24, no runs would score, and so you'd be winning, and you'd have to pitch 9 full innings.
If it was 25, one could be a home run. If you're the visiting team, you could lose 1-0 without the home team batting.
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I'm going with 6 pitches, too.Originally posted by penguin4
I'd like to say 6 (3 balls, 3 strikes), but it's probably a trick question. Nevertheless, I'll make 6 my final answer.
Here's another good trivia question, that I think has been asked already, but I really like...
What's the least number of pitches one pitcher can throw in a standard (9-inning) game (without being pulled for or coming in as relief)?
Above, I posted my answer to your question.
Yankee Stadium: 1923-2008
Reigning, Defending, 27-Time World Champions
![]()
GOD BLESS AMERICA

I knew I was missing something when I thought about thatOriginally posted by DiMaggio5CF
Couldn't be 24. Would be 25.
If it was 24, no runs would score, and so you'd be winning, and you'd have to pitch 9 full innings.
If it was 25, one could be a home run. If you're the visiting team, you could lose 1-0 without the home team batting.

it's not 6 thoughOriginally posted by DiMaggio5CF
I'm going with 6 pitches, too.
Above, I posted my answer to your question.
hint: already two outs

second hint: man on first
I'm going to guess seven, but don't ask me to explain my logic because it's too complicated since it doesn't make any sense ...![]()
Hurry up and spill, I won't be able to sleep tonight if I don't know the answer to this ...
-#1YankeeLover

the number is 11
2 outs, man on first
count goes to 3-2 ( five pitches)
runner gets thrown out stealing second
next inning, the same batter is at the plate, takes it to a full count and gets struck out on 6 pitches
11
You never told us that! And how would he get thrown out on a 3-2 count with two out? Strikeout would be 3 down, walk would be 1st and 2nd. Not making sense.
Very good question, jiffyjeff... never would've thought of the whole stealing thing...
DimaggioCF, you got mine. The answer was 25.... and the pitcher would have to lose the game, because it would mean he only pitched 8 innings of an away game (24 outs), and the 25th pitch would have to be either a home run, or a hit/error and a bunch of stolen bases. Since the home team would be winning at that point, there would be no reason for the starter to come in for the ninth inning.
"You aint my b!tch, n!gga! Buy your own damn fries!" -- Barack Obama

read VERY carefullyOriginally posted by deranged2005
You never told us that! And how would he get thrown out on a 3-2 count with two out? Strikeout would be 3 down, walk would be 1st and 2nd. Not making sense.
I never said he got struck out until he was at the plate in the next inning, if a player is in the box and another play ends the inning before his AB is up then he is the next player up to the plate
hint: look for the first two hints: two outs, runner on first
never used the word walk
Figured it was a trick question. That's why I went right to the last post above.
Sneaky, jiffyjeff, veddy sneaky. So if the inning ends due to a baserunner, not the batter, it's still considered the same "at bat"? Silly question, but just had to ask.
JY
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yup, in fact it's one of the things about baseball I really like ....Originally posted by Jersey Yankee
Sneaky, jiffyjeff, veddy sneaky. So if the inning ends due to a baserunner, not the batter, it's still considered the same "at bat"? Silly question, but just had to ask.
JY
it's one of those things a casual baseball observer doesn't appreciate about baseball and its intricacies ....
a manager can make that play very useful if his leadoff batter is at the plate but might rather see him actually lead off an inning unless he can get the runner in scoring position .... if he gets thrown out no big deal sometimes if he has a bigger plan for the line up and it's not too late in the game .... it's also a time to use a hit and run, but he gives the batter a 'soft' sign ...meaning that he only swings if he likes the pitch .... otherwise you sacrifice the runner for the guy at the plate instead of sacrificing the batter for the runner, which you can't do with two outs anyway
A good one!!!!Originally posted by jiffyjeff
The most number of pitches ONE pitcher can throw to ONE batter in one at-bat with no foul balls and still strike him out?
How about this? An easy one since you laid the "ground work". A pitcher throws 11 pitches to ONE batter, with no foul balls, and does not walk him or strike him out. Is this possible?
Sure, the guy just pops up or hits on the second 3-2 count.Originally posted by coalcracker
How about this? An easy one since you laid the "ground work". A pitcher throws 11 pitches to ONE batter, with no foul balls, and does not walk him or strike him out. Is this possible?
"You aint my b!tch, n!gga! Buy your own damn fries!" -- Barack Obama

sure, he faces him more than one time in a game and he gets hits, you didn't say in ONE at bat, I did
Sorry guys,Originally posted by jiffyjeff
sure, he faces him more than one time in a game and he gets hits, you didn't say in ONE at bat, I did
I should have said ONE at bat, AND reaches first - BUT does not get a base hit - or even hit the ball.
Last edited by coalcracker; 09-25-01 at 06:05 PM.
Yes, the batter would get hit by the 11th pitch.
[QUOTE]Originally posted by MLBfan
Yes, the batter would get hit by the 11th pitch. [/QUOTE
Right. Your prize is in the mail.![]()

yeah, that was a good question, next time I'm drowning and the lifeguard is near me I'm goint to tell him to go away because I didn't say "help' the right way ...I don't mind mind twisters ... you can't make it up as you go along ...and the question as I see it now still doesn't make sense...Originally posted by coalcracker
Sorry guys,
I should have said ONE at bat, AND reaches first - BUT does not get a base hit - or even hit the ball.
next......
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