PDA

View Full Version : Why is a perfect slugging percentage 4.0000



Pomp
08-13-04, 08:10 AM
A perfect OBP is 1.000, but I have read that a perfect slugging percentage is 4.000. I understand that because of this OBP is more valuable than SLG, but how do you arrive at the number 4.000?

Thanks.

Pomp
08-13-04, 08:15 AM
Originally posted by Pomp
A perfect OBP is 1.000, but I have read that a perfect slugging percentage is 4.000. I understand that because of this OBP is more valuable than SLG, but how do you arrive at the number 4.000?

Thanks.

Actually, I think it just figured it out.

Say you leadoff the inning with a HR. That is 4 total bases for your 1 at-bat, which gives you a SLG % of 4.0000. The next three guys come up and make 3 outs. That would be 4 total bases for 4 at-bats, thus making your SLG 1.000.

A perfect slugging % of 4.000 would mean that each person is coming up and hitting a HR, thus resulting in an infinite amount of runs.

AngelAstro
08-13-04, 08:50 AM
Originally posted by Pomp
Actually, I think it just figured it out.

Say you leadoff the inning with a HR. That is 4 total bases for your 1 at-bat, which gives you a SLG % of 4.0000. The next three guys come up and make 3 outs. That would be 4 total bases for 4 at-bats, thus making your SLG 1.000.

A perfect slugging % of 4.000 would mean that each person is coming up and hitting a HR, thus resulting in an infinite amount of runs. You got it.

Pomp
08-13-04, 10:26 AM
Originally posted by AngelAstro
You got it.

Yay, I get the prize!

Babe Ruth had a career slugging percentage of .690. So does that mean he averaged 0.69 total bases per at-bat?

Irony Of It All
08-13-04, 10:27 AM
Originally posted by Pomp


Yay, I get the prize!

Babe Ruth had a career slugging percentage of .690. So does that mean he averaged 0.69 total bases per at-bat?

Yes.